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Written at October 7, 2010 on English with a size of 129.43 KB.

-"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .

-"Cabotage" refers to: domestic air services ;

-"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

-"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: 18 m.

-"Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

-"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures: Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

-"Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available. For radar identification ATC may request the pilot to execute one or more heading changes of: 30° or more.

-"TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

-A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is: 80 NM.

-A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to: pass a specified point inbound at a previously notified time.

-A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: Poor

-A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when: the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight".

-A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: Not more than one month

-A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: Not more than one month

-A circling approach is: A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.

-A circling approach is: A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

-A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases? Initial, intermediate and final

-A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

-A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

-A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: Control area.

-A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: Control zone.

-A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 5%

-A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off, is called: Stopway.

-A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called: Clearway.

-A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

-A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is unsafe, do not land

-A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the signal area indicates that: aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways.

-A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than: 200 metres.

-A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a : Procedure turn.

-A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: 3.0 NM

-A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: 300 m (1000 ft)

-A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

-A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: An AIRAC.

-A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the aircraft reaches a distance of: 2 NM from touchdown

-A pilot receives an EAT as soon as practicable, when an expected approach delay is: 10 minutes or more.

-A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

-A red flare addressed to an aircraft in flight means: Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

-A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates: that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take off.

-A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by : Less than 760 m

-A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: Cleared to taxi.

-A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means: Return for landing, clearance to land and will be given in due course.

-A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means: Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

-A signalman requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal: Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

-A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

-A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;

-A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed: when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.

-A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: 30° or less

-A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in: a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;

-A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes: provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land

-A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference: until their journey can be continued

-A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: 15°.

-A strayed aircraft is: An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost

-A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as: B.

-A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

-A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

-Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168): Departure end of runway.

-Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to: 1 minute 30 seconds.

-Above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all Classes of airspace are: Visibility: 8 km, Distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical.

-Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be: 2 000 feet.

-Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for aircraft flying in the same direction shall be: 4 000 feet.

-According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: Laws of the State of registry

-According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic: Before landing and take-off

-According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State: At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

-According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: 150 hours of flight time

-According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

-According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1,500 hours of flight time, including: 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.

-According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR

-According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for : Not more than three years

-According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: one year

-According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for: 60 months until age of 40, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter

-According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including: All self.-sustaining gliders.

-According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

-According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: More than 12 hours

-According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 1 and 2

-According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: Two years

-According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to: Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes

-According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorization

-According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating: On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.

-According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A): Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction

-According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date: Of issue

-According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m up to but not including 65 m.

-According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 1 800 m and over.

-Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome

-Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

-Aeronautical Ground Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be brought back into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at least: one hour.

-After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure: This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

-AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? GEN

-Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

-Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.

-Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus: 30 seconds of UTC at all times

-Aircraft "A" is flying inder IFR, Aircraft "B" is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way? Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left.

-Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

-Aircraft equipped with red anticollision lights may display them: on the ground when the engines are running.

-Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend: 10 NM

-Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.

-Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

-Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported: as Flight Level.

-An air traffic control unit: may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

-An AIRAC is: An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

-An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A: Code 7700.

-An aircraft flying under IFR, maintaining FL 150 has requested clearance for descent. Another aircraft flying below, maintaining FL 140 receives the clearance: "Descend to FL 70, report passing FL100". The earliest moment the pilot of the aircraft at the higher level can expect to receive a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below is, when the pilot of the aircaft at the lower level has reported: that he has left FL 140

-An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: More than 300 ft.

-An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

-An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

-An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latte

-An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing

-An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130

-An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: 2 NM.

-An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: Last 2 NM of the approach

-An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of : 2 NM from the touchdown

-An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must : not land because the airport is not available for landing.

-An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least: a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.

-An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: on the ground when the engines are running

-An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: aircraft taking off or about to take off.

-An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

-An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency: 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz.

-An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes

-An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

-An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time

-An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold: a current class I medical assessment

-An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are : 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

-An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : 250 hours and 100 hours

-An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.

-An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

-An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

-An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively: 50 hours and 10 hours

-An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if: all mentioned answers are correct

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as: Airspace G

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as: Airspace E

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: Airspace D

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flight is: Airspace C

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Airspace B

-An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified: Airspace F

-An Expected Approach Time / EAT will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it has to hold: for 30 minutes or more.

-An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is: An AIRMET information

-An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements: AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

-An OCA is referenced to: Mean Sea Level

-Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: the Rome Convention

-Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights

-As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours, the applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross-country flight time on aeroplanes. How much of this shall be pilot-in command time or co-pilot time under the supervision of the pilot in command, performing the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority? 100 hours

-At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must: switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

-At the commencement of final approach the pilot shall expect information about significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed when the change for the mean cross-wind component is: 9 km/h (5 kt)

-At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is? 2 KT

-At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is : 5 KT

-ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are: below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

-ATIS broadcast: shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS

-ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Class B.

-Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: on the initiative of the aircraft commander

-Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is posible: If the commander so requests

-Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

-Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around: make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach procedure.

-Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights

-Communication failure. After experiencing a communication failure on a flight in accordance with IFR, the aircraft shall comply with the communication failure procedures. When flying in VMC, the aircraft shall: continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious means to the appropriate ATS unit.

-Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of: plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

-Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and wáter: Blue

-Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated by a colour code. The colour for blankets and protective clothing is: yellow.

-Contracting States have the obligation to inform ICAO about: differences or non-compliance with standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.

-Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

-Declared Distances "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .

-Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168). What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal: Base turn

-Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by: at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace Class C: ATC will provide separation with other traffic.

-During a precision approach (ILS), glide path interception occurs normally at heights above runway elevation between: 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

-During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: The pilot in command.

-During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

-During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is: 2 NM from touch-down;

-During the climb-out phase of a flight the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing? This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident.

-Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the aviation security services to be available: at each airport serving international civil aviation.

-Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.

-Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

-Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme: At each airport

-Each wing bar has: 4 lights

-Essential traffic is: Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.

-Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of: 60 NM or more

-Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 2 NM

-Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

-Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the: ceiling is less than 1 500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

-Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than: 2.5 NM

-Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

-Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: C to G (inclusive)

-Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: C, D, E, F, and G

-Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to: correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

-For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)

-For aircraft at the same cruising level, when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft will be: 5 minutes

-For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.

-For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night: 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

-For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of aerodromes, separation may be reduced: When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation

-For flights in accordance with IFR within advisory airspace a flight plan: shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported.

-For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as: boarding prior to all passengers

-General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

-Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

-High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white.

-How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 5 NM.

-How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made? 5 NM.

-How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? 2.

-If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed: After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

-If a pilot is carrying out single pilot commercial passenger transport operations how does the validity of his class 1 medical change on his 40th birthday ? from 12 months to 6 months

-If an aircraft enters the traffic circuit without proper authorization: it shall be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires.

-If an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') in non RVSM airspace and the pilot is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS, he shall try toproceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in that area by 1000 ft if the aircraft is operated above FL 290 or 500 ft if the aircraft is operated below FL 290.

-If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction: until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

-If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft: The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

-If an international commercial air service is operated with a single pilot aircraft, what is the maximum age of the pilot ? 59

-If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall: follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.

-If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: advise ATC as early as possible.

-If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form: write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.

-If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ? Descend

-If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ? CAN NOT

-If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions: The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

-IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL): Above the transition altitude when applicable

-In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from: Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.

-In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: FAP.

-In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: Fixed lights showing variable white.

-In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: 300 m.

-In accordance with JAR-FCL1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is: 100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

-In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Final approach segment.

-In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

-In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars. The meaning of this signal is: The unauthorised aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary.

-In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of: At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer

-In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? 2 minutes

-In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

-In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.

-In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: On or close to the approach slope.

-In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".

-In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original: estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.

-In the event of being hijacked in an area where regional procedures have not been established the pilot should: proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the area by 300m (1,000ft) above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace or 150m (500ft) above FL290 in RVSM airspace or below FL290

-In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.

-In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed: the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan

-In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of: altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude

-In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? ENR

-Inadvertent changes from a Flight plan. The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed: if the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% from that given in the flight plan.

-Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

-Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

-Independent parallel approaches. Such approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach by at least: 30° (degrees)

-Information on holding, approach and departure procedures Which part of the AIP contains this information? ENR

-Instructor categories are: FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) ratings, SFI and MCCI authorisation authorization

-Interception If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and pronunciations, transmitting each phrase twice. The standard phrase with the meaning "Descend for landing" for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft is: DESCEND DEE-SEND

-Intermediate approach segment. What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? 300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).

-JAR-FCL3, Information of the Authority in case of illness The holder of a pilot's licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which involves the incapacity to undertake licence related functions for a certain number of days. The number of days is: 21

-Light signals for aerodrome traffic: A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: Taxi clear of landing area in use.

-Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation : At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

-Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is: 20 NM

-Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be: 10 minutes

-Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft will be: 3 minutes

-Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Flashing red or preferably yellow.

-Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with emergency or security shall be: Flashing yellow.

-Lower Limit of Controlled Airspace: The lower limit of a Control area / CTA shall be established not less than: 700 ft AGL

-Mandatory instruction signs: Information signs other than location signs shall consist of: black inscriptions on yellow background.

-Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below: Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody

-Minima Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: 5.0 NM.

-Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders. According to ICAO Annex 1, the minimum / maximum age for the holder of an ATPL is: 21 and 59 years.

-Minimum level IFR. When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

-Minimum Radar Separation on final approach The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course shall be: 2.5 NM.

-Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this circle? 25 NM

-Name the accronym signifying the system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices: AIRAC.

-Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as: Instrument runways.

-Normal vectors to an ILS final give a 30º intercept. What is the maximum intercept angle according to ICAO Doc 4444 ? 45º

-Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: 2.5%

-On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: aircraft taking off or about to take off

-On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows: In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right.

-On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: transition altitude.

-One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: 45° immediately after take-off.

-One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.

-One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).

-One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To conduct surveillance radar approaches.

-One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: develop principles and technique for international aviation

-Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

-Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

-Pilots of controlled flights are requested to inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by: 5%

-Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they: are requested by ATC.

-Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they: are requested by ATC.

-Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

-Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than : 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold

-Radar Separation Minima When radar capabilities at a given location so permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be reduced, but shall not be less than: 3.0 NM.

-Radar Services - Precision Surveillance Radar: At what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified on departure when ATC is equipped with and using PSR? 1NM

-Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.

-Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: 5°.

-Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights other than IFR flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and: On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

-Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed: by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

-Requirement for a No-Transgression Zone Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a No-Transgression Zone / NTZ is established equidistant between the extended runway centre lines: 610 m

-Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

-Runway edge lights shall consist of at least: fixed lights showing variable white.

-Runway end lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

-Runway threshold identification lights are: flashing white lights.

-Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing white.

-Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

-Runway-lead-in lighting shall consist: of groups of at least three white lights, flashing in sequence towards the runway.

-Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;

-Search and Rescue Signals, droppable containers Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply: Red

-Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud: ASHTAM

-Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class : E airspace

-SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way radio communication, you have to squawk: Mode A Code 7600

-Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: +/- 20 kt.

-Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing green.

-Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue.

-Temporary changes of "long duration" and information of "short duration" with extensive text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. The period of "long duration" is: three months or longer.

-Temporary changes of "long duration" and information of "short duration" with extensive text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration: three months or longer.

-The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 2B.

-The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meterological conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are: Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight

-The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

-The "PAPI" shall consist of: A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

-The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Indicator.

-The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.

-The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: 18 years of age

-The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

-The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law: may deliver such person to the competent authorities

-The aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircraft, one of the passengers walks into the trailing edge of the wing and gets seriously injured: This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case.

-The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.

-The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : 200 hours and 100 hours

-The applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or a CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

-The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine: Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

-The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is: RED

-The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed: 30 seconds

-The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: in the NOTAM and in the AIP including Supplement.

-The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

-The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

-The colour of fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights is: red

-The colour of the fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be: red

-The Convention defining the duties of the parties relating to the carriage of passengers, baggage and cargo and the liability of the carriers and extent of compensation for damage is the: Convention for the unification of certain rules for international carriage by air, Montreal 1999.

-The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the liability in case of damage: to third parties on the surface.

-The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: the convention of Tokyo

-The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: the Rome Convention

-The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is: the convention of Tokyo

-The crew of an aircraft uses the following signal in order to give notice of difficulties, which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance: The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.

-The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): +/- 300 ft.

-The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink

-The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin at the date: the medical assessment is issued

-The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: 10 minutes

-The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the: Pilot-in-command.

-The first freedom of the air is: The right to overfly another State without landing.

-The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: 5 NM.

-The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is: X

-The ground - air visual signal code for "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: V

-The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is: X

-The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on groung to indicate "AFIRMATIVE" is: Y

-The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on groung to indicate "NEGATIVE" is: N

-The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: V

-The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 30 centimetres

-The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 50 centimetres

-The highest priority for landing has: an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

-The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit: in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

-The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

-The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers: cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

-The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is: annex 9

-The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is: annex 9

-The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures

-The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than: Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.

-The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: Annex 1

-The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of: Chicago

-The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

-The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Warsaw Convention.

-The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: 7 000 kg.

-The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

-The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: Green colour identification given by Morse Code.

-The light shown by an Aerodrome Identification Beacon of a land aerodrome shall be flashing, giving the aerodrome identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light is: Green.

-The loading limitations shall include: all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading

-The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 20 NM.

-The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.

-The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes.

-The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes.

-The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: 10 minutes.

-The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt faster or more than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes.

-The longitudinal separation minimum for 2 aircraft when both are utilizing the same "on track" DME stations is: 20 NM.

-The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are: the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

-The minimmum longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying on the same track, the preceeding one maintaining a true airspeed of 37 km (20 kt) faster than the succeeding aircraft, departed from the same aerodrome or having reported exactly over the same significant point, is: 5 minutes.

-The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 17 years

-The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 0 ft

-The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: 300m (984 ft).

-The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

-The minimum separation minimum that shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft and both are using the same runway is: 2 minutes

-The minimum separation to be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking of behind a HEAVY aircraft or a LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft using the same runway is: 2 minutes

-The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof with controlled access are called: Airside.

-The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: Each contracting state

-The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the: Chicago convention 1944

-The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination: The stated above is correct.

-The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: 1 minute 30 seconds.

-The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is: 1 minute.

-The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

-The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 3 – 5

-The pilot of an aircraft, observing a luminous signal requesting help, will indicate to the persons in difficulty that he has received the ground signals by: switching his landing lights on and off twice or, if the aeroplan is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

-The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: true air speed (TAS).

-The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

-The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.

-The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar separation.

-The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation

-The procedure for the pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be followed in case of intercepting a distress transmission is: record the position of the craft in distress if given, if possible take a bearing of the transmission, inform the appropriate RCC or ASS and, while awaiting instructions, proceed at your discretion towards the position given in the transmission

-The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed: 31th of December the same year

-The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.

-The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 3.0 NM.

-The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by the: the state of registry or common mark registering authority

-The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

-The runway edge lights shall be: white

-The second freedom of the air is the: right to land for a technical stop

-The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called: Composite separation

-The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : GEN

-The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be theprevention of accidents or incidents.

-The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3,050 m (10,000 ft) AMLS, is: Not applicable

-The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT, IAS

-The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: Not applicable

-The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS

-The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

-The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

-The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

-The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when, as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits it to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each: half NM

-The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: AIRAC

-The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows: AIP Supplements

-The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: Visual manoeuvring (circling).

-The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: +/- 300 ft.

-The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another unit is done: by agreement with the receiving unit.

-The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: 3000 ft

-The Transition Level: shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

-The transition level: will be passed to aircraft by ATS units

-The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the: Rescue Co-ordination Centre

-The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

-The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: 1 year

-The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within controlled airspace, above FL 290 is: 2000 feet (600 m).

-The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within controlled airspace, below FL 290 is: 1000 feet (300 m).

-The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is : 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

-The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are : 1 500 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

-The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are : 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.

-The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported

-The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;

-To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is : 21 and 59 years

-To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: two way radio communication is not required.

-Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

-Type ratings shall be established: for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

-Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo

-Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as: altitude in a descent.

-Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: 8 NM.

-Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft

-Visual aids for navigation - Approach Lights. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system shall be fixed lights, showing variable intensity of the following colour: white

-Visual aids for navigation - Lights - PAPI How does a pilot see the PAPI wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope? All the four units are steady white.

-Visual aids for navigation - Runway threshold Lights. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be: green

-Visual Flight Rules. Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

-Visual ground signals. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

-VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

-What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC? Vertical and horizontal separation.

-What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure? Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

-What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification surface.

-What is a "barrette"?three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.

-What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

-What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: 900m

-What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? ± 20KT

-What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? 1000 feet

-What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway? 2 minutes

-What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft: 6 NM

-What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

-When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".

-When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation: shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence

-When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 by another Contracting State, the validity of the authorization: Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.

-When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon: Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft

-When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

-When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: 030° magnetic

-When a threshold is displaced, what colour shall the lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold? red.

-When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: read back the mode and code to be set.

-When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder

-When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if: the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

-When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: air traffic control and flight information centres.

-When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code: 7500.

-When an aircraft is vectored by radar to the localizer course, the angle between the interception course and the localizer course is normally 30 degrees. In accordance with DOC 4444 this angle shall not be greater than: 45°

-When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditius means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

-When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

-When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

-When conducting a straight-in approach if there are no published minima what minima do you use ? OCH

-When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: 2 NM from touchdown.

-When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain? When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.

-When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as: altitude during descent

-When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : 30 degrees

-When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for: at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

-When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course: at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

-When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: operational air traffic control centres

-When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: TTT

-When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: PAN

-When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example: XXX

-When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the: five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

-When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed: the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft

-When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of : 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

-When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of : 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

-When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.

-When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall: inform the pilot prior to issuing instructions based on the use of radar.

-When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of: 4 NM from the touchdown

-When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: unless otherwise directed by ATC.

-When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: unless otherwise directed by ATC.

-When the Mach number separation technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft maintains a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft an RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is: 80 NM

-When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is : 80 NM

-When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than: departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed

-When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall: alter its heading to the right.

-When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: 30 degrees.

-Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated: immediately a significant change occurs

-Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of: the air traffic services

-Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by: Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700

-Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.

-Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in: need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

-Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

-Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? Code letter "C".

-Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

-Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? the Air Navigation Commission

-Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? Code 7500.

-Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? Code 7700.

-Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

-Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

-Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in a neighbouring State? 2nd freedom

-Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP: Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate

-Which is the principal composition of a precision approach category I lighting system? A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 900 m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 300 m from the runway threshold.

-Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

-Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

-Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit

-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? Annex 11

-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Annex 14

-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? Annex 1

-Which of the following combinations might be confused with an urgent or distress signal? XXX

-Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

-Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention

-Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;

-Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? Alerting Service and Flight Information Service may be provided by the same ATS unit

-Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? GEN

-Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? GEN

-Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?GEN

-Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures? ENR

-Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas? ENR

-Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available? AD

-Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;

-Which statement is correct? The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;

-Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

-While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit

-While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.

-While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : must vacate the landing area in use.

-Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft : must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

-Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight? The pilot-in-command.

-Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? The pilot-in-command.

-Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.

-Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation? The government of the state in which the accident took place

-With altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa, the vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level has to be reported: as Flight Level.

-Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? 900 metres

-Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? 45 metres

-You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised". At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again: You have to return to your current flight plan route.

-You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure: either offset or parallel.

-You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL: With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating

-You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL: With a theoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating

-You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ? If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued

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Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (ssr)? casa de lucas A so called Visual Approach Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at appoximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which is the right of way? You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg (circling) ? Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than: When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example what is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above fl 140 atpl carlitos air law Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? general navigation Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences IFR? content white dumbbell with black perpendicular bar When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?