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AL0002 The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
Choose one answer.
a. The airliner operator |
b. The aircraft owner |
c. The commander |
d. The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace |
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
Choose one answer.
a. 2% |
b. 3% |
c. 10 % |
d. 5% |
AL0020 Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
Choose one answer.
a. +/- 20 kt. | P 19-8 |
b. +/- 10 kt. | P 19-8 |
c. +/- 15 kt. | P 19-8 |
d. +/- 8 kt. | P 19-8 |
AL0025 Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
Choose one answer.
a. 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft |
b. 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course |
c. 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course |
d. 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course |
AL0033 A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing.
The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
Choose one answer.
a. ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out |
b. VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing,with an available instrument approach procedure |
c. ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure |
d. VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used |
AL0035 Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
Choose one answer.
a. When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet |
b. When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight |
c. When seems possible to land |
d. When the aircraft has the control tower in sight |
AL0037 If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :
Choose one answer.
a. leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. |
b. pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. |
c. pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. |
d. follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. |
AL0041 What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
Choose one answer.
a. Follow the radio communication failure procedure. |
b. it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion. |
c. inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. |
d. a non-standard holding pattern is permitted. |
AL0043 Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?
Choose one answer.
a. 230 kt IAS. | P 10-38 |
b. 240 kt TAS. | P 10-38 |
c. 230 kt TAS. | P 10-38 |
d. 240 kt IAS. | P 10-38 |
AL0056 "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
Choose one answer.
a. Precision approach runways category I, II and III. | P 23-5 |
b. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. | P 23-5 |
c. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. | P 23-5 |
d. Precision approach runways in general. | P 23-5 |
AL0058 "TODA" take-off distance available is:
Choose one answer.
a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). | P 23-4 |
b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway. | P 23-4 |
c. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). | P 23-4 |
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). | P 23-4 |
AL0064 According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
Choose one answer.
a. 1 800 m and over. |
b. 1 200 m. |
c. 1 500 m. |
d. 1 600 m. |
AL0076 Runway threshold lights shall be:
Choose one answer.
a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. |
b. Fixed lights green colours. |
c. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. |
d. Fixed lights showing green or white colours. |
AL0081 In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
Choose one answer.
a. 150 m. | P 23-26 |
b. 200 m. | P 23-26 |
c. 300 m. | P 23-26 |
d. 250 m. | P 23-26 |
AL0083 Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Choose one answer.
a. Fixed red or preferably blue. |
b. Flashing red or preferably yellow. |
c. Fixed red or preferably orange. |
d. Flashing blue. |
AL0084 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Choose one answer.
a. Fixed red. |
b. Flashing yellow. |
c. Flashing red. |
d. Fixed orange. |
AL0087 The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
Choose one answer.
a. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. |
b. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. |
c. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. |
d. The longuest aeroplane maximum width only |
AL0088 When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure,
the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying,
but as far in advance as possible and:
Choose one answer.
a. At least 30 minute prior to landing. |
b. At least immediately before landing. |
c. At least one hour prior to landing. |
d. At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace. |
AL0093 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Choose one answer.
a. Control area. |
b. Advisory airspace. |
c. Air traffic zone. |
d. Control zone. |
AL0110 The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
Choose one answer.
a. uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. |
b. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. |
c. uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. |
d. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. |
AL0119 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Choose one answer.
a. Crossing arms extended above his head. |
b. Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground. |
c. Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist. |
d. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. |
AL0125 Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
Choose one answer.
a. Z |
b. Y |
c. V |
d. I |
AL0137 Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly ___ degrees of heading difference:
Choose one answer.
a. At least 45º | P 17-4 |
b. At least 30º | P 17-4 |
c. At least 10º | P 17-4 |
d. At least 15º | P 17-4 |
AL0138 Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, continue heading 050 until further advised". Time is now 1836 UTC.
At 1837 UTC you find out radio communications cannot be established again and you have to return to your current flight plan route.
Choose one answer.
a. With an intercept of at least 45 deg |
b. With an intercept of 20 deg or more |
c. With an intercept of at least 30 deg |
d. On the nearest way. |
AL0142 During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:
Choose one answer.
a. Before penetrating the clouds. |
b. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. |
c. When advised by Tower. |
d. After take-off. |
AL0193 When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
Choose one answer.
a. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. |
b. Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. |
c. Only when directed by ATC. |
d. At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. |
AL0209 The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :
Choose one answer.
a. in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. | Ch 11 |
b. NOTAM, AIP and MAL | Ch 11 |
c. only in AIP | Ch 11 |
d. only in NOTAM | Ch 11 |
AL0211 The longitudinal separation minima
based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
Choose one answer.
a. 10 minutes. |
b. 15 minutes. |
c. 5 minutes. |
d. 3 minutes. |
AL0221 Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
Choose one answer.
a. The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. | P 16-2 |
b. The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. | P 16-2 |
c. The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. | P 16-2 |
d. The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. | P 16-2 |
AL0223 The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
Choose one answer.
a. 2.5 NM. |
b. 2 NM. |
c. 3 NM. |
d. 5 NM. |
AL0225 The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
Choose one answer.
a. +/- 300 ft. |
b. +/- 250 ft. |
c. +/- 500 ft. |
d. +/- 200 ft. |
AL0230 The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
Choose one answer.
a. Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. | P 22-5 |
b. Blue for food and water. | P 22-5 |
c. Black for food and water. | P 22-5 |
d. Red for miscellaneous equipment. | P 22-5 |
AL0236 Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ?
Choose one answer.
a. the Regional Air Navigation meeting | P 2-19 |
b. the Air Navigation Commission | P 2-19 |
c. the Council | P 2-19 |
d. the Assembly | P 2-19 |
AL0255 Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :
Choose one answer.
a. information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. |
b. information signs; orange background with black inscriptions. |
c. mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions. |
d. mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions. |
AL0268 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
Choose one answer.
a. 5 minutes |
b. 2 minutes |
c. 3 minutes |
d. 10 minutes |
AL0272 What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
Choose one answer.
a. 1 minute |
b. 2 minutes |
c. 5 minutes |
d. 3 minutes |
AL0278 A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
Choose one answer.
a. 1.0 NM |
b. 5.0 NM |
c. 2.0 NM |
d. 3.0 NM |
AL0280 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :
Choose one answer.
a. 25 degrees | P 10-45 |
b. 20 degrees | P 10-45 |
c. 30 degrees | P 10-45 |
d. 15 degrees | P 10-45 |
AL0293 Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
Choose one answer.
a. (1), and then by mutual consent to (3). |
b. (1) until the completion of operations. |
c. (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3). |
d. (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations. |
AL0295 The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :
Choose one answer.
a. required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time). |
b. required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. |
c. of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day. |
d. required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. |
AL0298 The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is :
Choose one answer.
a. 5 minutes or more. |
b. 20 minutes |
c. 15 minutes or more |
d. 10 minutes |
AL0311 Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.182 KHz |
b. 243.0 MHz |
c. 121.5 MHz |
d. 2430 KHz |
AL0324 One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
Choose one answer.
a. develop principles and techniqes for international aviation |
b. approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies |
c. approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft |
d. approve new international airlines |
AL0326 The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
Choose one answer.
a. operator |
b. limitation of the operator |
c. the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods |
d. the security system at airports |
AL0338 An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?
Choose one answer.
a. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 | P 17-3 |
b. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140 | P 17-3 |
c. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 | P 17-3 |
d. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 | P 17-3 |
AL0347 Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other.
Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
Choose one answer.
a. 15 NM |
b. 20 NM |
c. 10 NM |
d. 12 NM |
AL0356 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
Choose one answer.
a. 5 NM from the touchdown |
b. 4 NM from the touchdown |
c. 1.5 NM from the touchdown |
d. 2 NM from the touchdown |
AL0364 When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft.
An RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum.
The distance is :
Choose one answer.
a. 100 NM |
b. 70 NM |
c. 60 NM |
d. 80 NM |
AL0369 ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
Choose one answer.
a. cumulonimbus |
b. below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater |
c. below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater |
d. below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater |
AL0375 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
Choose one answer.
a. Airspace E |
b. Airspace C |
c. Airspace B |
d. Airspace D |
AL0398 Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
Choose one answer.
a. Six months or longer |
b. Three months or longer |
c. One year or longer |
d. Two months or longer |
AL0402 The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
Choose one answer.
a. ORANGE |
b. YELLOW |
c. GREEN |
d. RED |
AL0405 The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, is found in the following part of the AIP
Choose one answer.
a. ENR |
b. MAP |
c. GEN |
d. AD |
AL0411 In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states
Choose one answer.
a. shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiating the flight |
b. in certain cases any other identity may be required |
c. may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight |
d. none of the answers are applicable |
AL0425 Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :
Choose one answer.
a. the Chicago Convention |
b. the Montreal Convention |
c. the Warsaw Convention |
d. the Rome Convention |
AL0434 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
Choose one answer.
a. 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) | P 4-5 |
b. 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) | P 4-5 |
c. 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) | P 4-5 |
d. 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) | P 4-5 |
AL0440 Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority :
Choose one answer.
a. Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC | P 24-1 |
b. Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states | P 24-1 |
c. Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC | P 24-1 |
d. Shall be specified to ICAO | P 24-1 |
AL0441 Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken
Choose one answer.
a. The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. |
b. These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state. |
c. The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed. |
d. Correct. |
AL0447 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
Choose one answer.
a. 15 NM on the route between 30 and 90 deg | P 12-12 |
b. 25 NM on the route between 30 and 90 deg | P 12-12 |
c. 15 KM on the route between 30 and 90 deg | P 12-12 |
d. 22.5 NM on the route between 30 and 90 deg | P 12-12 |
AL0453 ATIS broadcast
Choose one answer.
a. Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency |
b. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS |
c. Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR |
d. Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR |
AL0454 Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
Choose one answer.
a. 10 seconds of UTC at all times | P 12-10 |
b. 15 seconds of UTC at all times | P 12-10 |
c. 1 minute of UTC at all times | P 12-10 |
d. 30 seconds of UTC at all times | P 12-10 |
AL0457 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
Choose one answer.
a. by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements |
b. by regional air navigation agreements |
c. by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements |
d. by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements |
AL0466 The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be
Choose one answer.
a. at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres |
b. at least 40 centimetres |
c. at least 20 centimetres |
d. at least 30 centimetres |
AL0468 When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
Choose one answer.
a. the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy |
b. the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy |
c. the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy |
d. the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy |
AL0470 The first freedom of the air is:
Choose one answer.
a. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on boardbetween two states. |
b. The right to overfly without landing. |
c. The right to land for a technical stop. |
d. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. |
AL0471 An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
Choose one answer.
a. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. |
b. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. |
c. not land because the airport is not available for landing. |
d. give way to another aircraft. |
AL0477 The pilot in command of an aircraft:
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
Choose one answer.
a. 3 - 4 - 5 |
b. 1 - 4 |
c. 3 - 5 |
d. 2 - 3 - 5 |
AL0481 Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code :
Choose one answer.
a. A 5300 Mode C |
b. A 7600 Mode C |
c. A 7620 Mode C |
d. A 0020 Mode C |
AL0484 If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
Choose one answer.
a. write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of theairport. |
b. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport |
c. write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport. |
d. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport |
AL0488 Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
Choose one answer.
a. 5% |
b. 2.5% |
c. 3.3% |
d. 2% |
AL0504 According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has :
Choose one answer.
a. A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. |
b. A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer. |
c. Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member |
d. Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training |
AL0515 According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
Choose one answer.
a. Laws of the State in which is operated |
b. Laws of the State of registry and operation |
c. Requirements laid down by ICAO |
d. Laws of the State of registry |
AL0520 A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes :
Choose one answer.
a. provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers | P 24-3 |
b. provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land | P 24-3 |
c. provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling | P 24-3 |
d. only permission to land | P 24-3 |
AL0410 Which one of the statements is correct :
Choose one answer.
a. contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew |
b. contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers |
c. contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew |
d. contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages |
AL0314 If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
Choose one answer.
a. until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway |
b. until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway |
c. until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway |
d. until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway |